Answers to the NCM 109 Maternal Concept 2 Exam Questions
Answers to the NCM 109 Maternal Concept 2 Exam Questions
1. A couple is being taught about fetal development by the nurse. Regarding the morula stage of development, which of the nurse’s statements is accurate?
a) The fertilized egg has yet to implant the uterus
b) The lung fields are completely mature
c) The sex of the feuts can be clearly identified
d) The eyelids are unfused and begin to open and close
Answer. The fertilized egg has yet to implant the uterus
2. The nurse is evaluating a client’s test report who is 40 weeks pregnant. Which of the following values would a pregnant woman often see elevated?
a) Glucose
b) Fibrinogen
c) Hemoglobin
d) Bilirubin
Answer. Fibrinogen
3. A fetus’s cardiac ultrasound demonstrates that normal fetal circulation is taking place. Regarding the fetal circulation, which of the following statements does the nurse understand as true?
a) The ductus arteriosus is a hole between the ventricles
b) The umbilical vein contains oxygen poor blood Rich
c) The right atrium is connected to the left atrium via foramen ovale
d) The ductus venosus lies between the aorta and pulmonary artery
Answer. The right atrium is connected to the left atrium via foramen ovale
4. Which of the following questions should the nurse consider when assessing a pregnant mother who is multiparous for the need for health education?
a) What are the ages of your children?
b) What is your marital status?
c) Do you have any allergies?
d) Do you ever drink alcohol?
Answer. Do you ever drink alcohol?
5. At her 12-week appointment, a woman whose gestational weight was 105 ID weighed 108 1h. Which of the nurse’s remarks below is suitable right now?
a) We expect you to gain 1lb per week, so your weight is a little low at this time.
b) Most women gain no weight during the first trimester, so I would suggest you to eat fewer desserts for the next few weeks.
c) You entered the pregnancy well underweight, so we should check your diet to make sure you are getting the nutrients you need.
d) Your weight gain is exactly what we would expect it to be at this time.
Answer. Your weight gain is exactly what we would expect it to be at this time.
6. A patient queries the nurse about the meaning behind the doctor’s statement that her Chadwick’s sign was positive. Which of the following details regarding the discovery would be suitable for the nurse to share at this particular moment?
a) It is a purplish stretch mark on your abdomen.
b) It means that you are having heart palpitation.
c) It is a bluish coloration of your cervix and vagina.
d) It means the doctor heard abnormal sounds when you breathed in.
Answer. It is a bluish coloration of your cervix and vagina.
7. A pregnant woman is given reproductive system counseling by nurse Liza. She explains that the area of the uterus that expands significantly during pregnancy is the:
a) Corpus
b) Fundus
c) Cervix
d) Internal OS
Answer. Corpus. Answers to the NCM 109 Maternal Concept 2 Exam Questions.
8. Nurse Liza drew a reproductive system diagram for the fifth-graders she was teaching a health education session. This encompasses the subsequent EXCEPT:
a) The Bartholin’s gland and Skene’s gland lubricates the vulva during sexual intercourse
b) The normal flora of the vagina is lactobacillus shirota strain
c) The uterus is the site of implantation
d) The endometrium sloughs off during menstruation
Answer. The normal flora of the vagina is lactobacillus shirota strain
9. The fundal height at the place indicated on the symphysis pubis has just been palpated by the nurse. How many weeks pregnant is the client probably?
a) 12
b) 20
c) 28
d) 36
Answer. 12
10. An internal exam is conducted on a pregnant patient by nurse Liza. According to her description, the reproductive system component is a tubular musculomembranous structure that extends between the rectum and the bladder and between the vulva and the uterus. The anatomical segment under discussion is the:
a) Vagina
b) Rectum canal
c) Urethra
d) Cervix
Answer. Vagina
11. A 35-day menstrual cycle lady reports that on day 21 of her cycle, she frequently feels slight lower abdominal pain on one side. She questions if she is suffering from ovarian cancer. Which answer works best for the nurse?
a) Women often feel a slight twinge when ovulation occurs,
b) Ovarian cancer is a possibility and you should seek medical attention as soon as possible.
c) Ovarian cancer is unlikely because the pain is not constant pain.
d) It is more likely that such pain indicates an ovarian cyst because pain is more common with that problem.
Answer. Women often feel a slight twinge when ovulation occurs,
12. Which of the following hormone levels would a nurse anticipate to see if hormonal testing were performed on a woman who is menstruating?
a) Both estrogen and progesterone are high
b) Estrogen is high and progesterone is low
c) Estrogen is low and progesterone is high
d) Both estrogen and progesterone are low
Answer. Both estrogen and progesterone are low
13. A 20-year-old woman came to the clinic complaining of dysmenorrhea. Which of the following describes a suitable initiative for health education?
a) Avoid exercise during menstrual period
b) Refrain from using analgesic since it affects menstrual flow
c) Do not eat cold food
d) Apply warm compress to relieve pain
Answer. Apply warm compress to relieve pain
14. During a natural family planning counseling session, the nurse should clarify that the cervical mucus consistency during ovulation is as follows:
a) Becomes thin and elastic
b) Becomes opaque and acidic
c) Contains numerous leukocytes to prevent vaginal infections
d) Decreases in quantity n response to body temp
Answer. Becomes thin and elastic Answers to the NCM 109 Maternal Concept 2 Exam Questions.
15. The clinic was consulted by 23-year-old Amy, a primigravid, for her initial prenatal examination. Her menstrual cycle ended on March 16, 2014. When does Amy expect to be confined?
a) December 23, 2024
b) January 20, 2025
c) February 23, 2025
Answer. December 23, 2024
16. With a Copper T intrauterine device (IUD) in place, a woman became pregnant. The doctor has prescribed an ultrasound in order to assess the pregnancy. The nurse is asked by the client why this is so crucial. Which of the following is the main reason the ultrasound is performed, and the nurse should explain this to the woman?
a) Assesses for presence of an ectopic pregnancy
b) Checks the baby for serious malformations
c) Assesses for pelvic inflammatory disease
d) Checks for the possibility of a twin pregnancy
Answer. Assesses for presence of an ectopic pregnancy
17. Calling the clinic, a customer who has been using birth control pills for two months complains, “I have had a bad headache for the past couple of days and I now have pain in my right leg.” Which of the following answers is the nurse supposed to give?
a) Continue the pill, but take one aspirin tablet with it each day from now on.
b) Stop taking the pill, and start using a condom for contraception.
c) Come to the clinic this afternoon so that we can see what is going on.
d) Those are common side effects that should disappear in a month or so.
Answer. Come to the clinic this afternoon so that we can see what is going on
18. Which of the following statements made by a woman shows that she is familiar with the basal body temperature activity (BBT) method?
a) I know my temperature must be taken before I go to work
b) I can expect a change in my temperature if ovulation occurs
c) My mucus discharge always changes at the beginning and end of my cycle
d) I must take my temperature at night and after getting up every day
Answer. I can expect a change in my temperature if ovulation occurs
19. A patient walks into the antenatal clinic. She says she thinks she might be pregnant. Which of the following hormonal increases will suggest that there’s a good chance the patient is carrying a child?
a) Chorionic gonadotropin Hormone
b) Oxytocin
c) Prolactin
d) Luteinizing
Answer. Chorionic gonadotropin Hormone
20. A pregnant woman who complains of backaches should be taught which of the following exercises?
a) Kegel’s
b) Pelvic Rocking
c) Leg lifting
d) Crunching
Answer. Pelvic Rocking
21. A gravid that is 36 weeks gestation lies flat on her back. Which of the following symptoms or indicators in mothers would the nurse look out for?
a) Hypertension
b) Dizziness
c) Rales
d) Chloasma
Answer. Dizziness
22. The nurse receives the following obstetrical history from a woman: experienced a miscarriage three years ago, a first-trimester abortion two years ago, and a son, who is now seven years old, at 28 weeks’ gestation. I also had a daughter, who is now five years old, at 39 weeks’ gestation. As of right now, she is expecting. Which of the following sums up this woman’s gravidity and parity the best?
a) G4 P2121
b) G4 P1212
c) G5 P1122
Answer. G5 P1122
23. A primigravida at 6 weeks gestation tells the nurse that a friend of hers had a baby that was born with spina bifida. In designing a nutritional plan, the nurse considers the following as necessary to the health of the mother and the growing fetus in preventing the occurrence of anemia and neural tube defects.
a) Sataniacin
b) Iron
c) Folic Acid
d) Zinc
e) Calcium
Answer. Iron and Folic Acid Answers to the NCM 109 Maternal Concept 2 Exam Questions.
24. During a home visit, a single parent who is multigravida at 32 weeks gestation, tells the nurse that she craves and often eats laundry starch for lunch and usually has a bowl of soup for supper. Total weight gain to date has been 12 lb (5kg). A priority nursing diagnosis for the patent is:
a) Altered parenting related to single status
b) Ineffective individual coping, related to pregnancy
c) Altered nutrition, less than body requirements, related to pica
d) Noncompliance, related to insufficient resources
Answer. Altered nutrition, less than body requirements, related to pica
25. A primigravida at 10 weeks gestation tells the nurse that she continues to have a urinary frequency. The nurse should instruct the patient to:
a) Decrease her amount of fluid intake during the day
b) Drink tea coffee only in the morning
c) Avoid wearing panty liners during the night
d) Empty her bladder frequently throughout the day
Answer. Empty her bladder frequently throughout the day
26. A multigravida at 32 weeks gestation tells the nurse that she “gets dizzy once in a while.” The nurse should instruct the patient to:
a) Avoid sudden position changes
b) Avoid being in a cold room
c) stand with her head lowered
d) Discontinue moderate exercise
Answer. Avoid sudden position changes
27. A primigravida at 36 weeks gestation tells the nurse that she has moderate breast tenderness. After providing the patient with some suggestions for relief measures, the nurse determines that the patient needs further instructions when the patient says:
a) Should wear a supportive bra at all times.
b) I should cleanse my nipples with soap.
c) I should change my sleeping positions.
d) I should clean up the colostrum with water.”
Answer. I should cleanse my nipples with soap.
28. A primigravida at 35 weeks gestation tells the nurse that she gets an occasional cramp in her legs. The nurse should assess the patient’s intake of:
a) Zinc
b) Calcium
c) Niacin
d) B. Iron
Answer. Calcium
29. A multigravida at 37 weeks gestation tells the nurse that she has frequent heartburn. After providing the patient with suggestions for obtaining relief from the heartburn, the nurse determines that the patient has understood the instructions when the patient says:
a) I can take a teaspoon of baking soda in water occasionally
b) I should eat only three large meals and drink plenty of fluids
c) Hamburger and fries
d) I should eat smaller, more frequent meals with fluids
Answer. I should eat smaller, more frequent meals with fluids
30. A 30-year-old primigravida tells the nurse that her hemorrhoids have become itchy and painful. After instructing the patient about relief measures, the nurse determines that the patient needs further instructions when she says:
a) I should sit in warm sitz bath daily.” at night.
b) I can use a topical ointment for relief.
c) I should apply an ice pack
d) I should decrease my fluid intake.
Answer. I should decrease my fluid intake. Answers to the NCM 109 Maternal Concept 2 Exam Questions.
31. A woman who states that she “thinks” she is in labor enters the labor suite. Which of the following assessments will provide the nurse with the most valuable information regarding the client’s labor status?
a) Leopold’s maneuver
b) Fundal contractility
c) Fetal heart assessment
d) Vaginal examination
Answer. Fundal contractility
32. The nurse is assessing the fetal station during a vaginal examination. Which of the following structures should the nurse palpate?
a) Sacral promontory
b) Ischial spines
c) Cervix
d) Symphysis pubis
Answer. Ischial spines
33. A woman, who is in active labor, is told by her obstetrician, “Your baby is in the flexed attitude.” When she asks the nurse what that means, the nurse should say?
a) The baby is in the breech position
b) The baby is in(horizontal position
c) The baby’s presenting part is engaged”X
d) The baby’s chin is resting on its chest
Answer. The baby’s chin is resting on its chest
34. A client in labor is talkative and happy. How many centimeters dilated would a maternity nurse suspect that the client at this time?
a) 2 cm
b) 4 cm
c) 8 cm
d) 10 cm
Answer. 2 cm
35. A nurse is caring for a laboring woman who is in transition phase Which of the following signs/symptoms would indicate that the woman is progressing into the second stage of labor? SATA
a) Bulging of the perineum II.
b) Increased bloody show
c) Premature ROM
d) Uncontrollable urge to push
e) Contractions every 15 mins
Answer.
Bulging of the perineum II.
Increased bloody show
Uncontrollable urge to push
36. Immediately following administration of an epidural anesthesia, the nurse must monitor the mother for which of the following?
a) Paresthesia in her feet and legs
b) Drop in blood pressure
c) Increased central venous pressure
d) Fetal heart acceleration
Answer. Drop in blood pressure
37. The nurse is performing a vaginal examination on a client in labor. The client is found to
be 5cm dilated, 90% effaced, and station -2 cm. Which of the following has the nurse palpated?
a) Thin cervix
b) Bulging fetal membranes
c) Head at the pelvic pelvic outlet
d) Closed cervix
Answer. Thin cervix
38. A woman is in the transition phase of labor. Which of the following comments should the nurse expect to hear?
a) I am so excited to be in labor.
b) I can’t stand this pain any longer.
c) I need ice chips because I’m so hot.
d) I have to push the baby out right now.
Answer. I can’t stand this pain any longer.
39. To decrease the possibility of perineal laceration during delivery, the nurse performs which of the following interventions prior to delivery?
a) Assists the woman into a squatting position
b) Advises the woman to push only when she feels the urge
c) Encourage the woman to push slowly and steadily
d) Supporting the perinuem when the women bears down
Answer. Supporting the perinuem when the women bears down
40. Which of the following nursing actions is a priority after rupture of membranes to determine possible umbilical cord prolapse?
a) Auscultating fetal heart sounds
b) Turning the client onto her left side
c) Administering oxygen via face mask
d) Administering a tocolytic
Answer. Auscultating fetal heart sounds
41. Which of the following patients would the nurse consider a priority for being placed at high risk for fetal distress during labor?
a) A Patient with a 20-to 25-pound weight gain during pregnancy
b) An Rh-negative patient with a negative indirect Coombs’ test
c) A gestational diabetic whose glucose level was 90 mydl on admission
d) A patient at 43 weeks gestation admitted for induction of labor
Answer. A patient at 43 weeks gestation admitted for induction of labor
42. Upon palpation of an intrapartum patient’s abdomen, the nurse assesses the fetus is in a breech presentation. Where would the nurse auscultate for the fetal heart tones?
a) Above the umbilicus
b) Below the umbilicus
c) Left lower abdomen
d) Right lateral abdomen
Answer. Above the umbilicus
43. The nurse is teaching a group of couples in a childbirth class. After the nurse describes normal labor, including the premonitory signs of labor, the patients attending the class comment. Which of the following remarks would indicate that further teaching is necessary?
a) My membranes won’t rupture until I’m ready to deliver.
b) I may feel Braxton Hicks contractions as my pregnancy progresses.
c) Lightening usually occurs 2 weeks before labor begins in a first pregnancy.
d) I’ll begin to see a bloody mucous vaginal discharge as my cervix begins to dilate.
Answer. My membranes won’t rupture until I’m ready to deliver. Answers to the NCM 109 Maternal Concept 2 Exam Questions.
44. The nurse reviews the contractile patterns seen during the client’s latent phase of labor. Which of the following statements made by the patient indicates that she understood the teaching?
a) My contractions should be every 2 to 3 minutes, lasting for 60 to 90 seconds, and will be strong.
b) I should expect not to be able to feel my contractions during the early latent phase of labor.” wild
c) My contractions will be mild, lasting for approximately 30 seconds, and occurring about every 10 minutes.
d) I expect to be in the latent phase of labor for only a short time.”
Answer. My contractions will be mild, lasting for approximately 30 seconds, and occurring about every 10 minutes.
45. The vaginal examination reveals that the fetus is in a vertex presentation and at a – 1 station. The nurse would interpret these findings to indicate that the fetal:
a) head is engaged
b) head is above the ischial spines
c) buttocks are crowning
d) buttocks are below the ischial spines
Answer. Head is above the ischial spines
46. The nurse is teaching husband how to time the frequency of his wife’s contractions who is in labor. Which of the following statements would the nurse use in her teaching?
a) Frequency is timed from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction
b) Frequency is timed from the beginning of a contraction to the end of the same contraction duration
c) Frequency can be determined only with an internal pressure catheter, which will be inserted after the membranes are ruptured
d) Frequency is measured by timing the interval between the end of one contraction and the beginning of the next contraction
Answer. Frequency is timed from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction
47. The nurse continues to monitor Mrs. Login’s progress in labor. Which of the following assessments would require the nurse to collect additional data?
a) Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
b) Left occipitoanterior (LOA) fetal presentation
c) Blood tinged vaginal discharged at complete dilation
d) Maternal pulse between 90 and 95 beats / minute
Answer. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
48. A woman had a baby by normal spontaneous delivery 10 minutes ago. The nurse notes that a gush of blood was just expelled from the vagina and the umbilical cord lengthened. What should the nurse conclude?
a) The woman has an internal laceration
b) The woman is about to deliver the placenta
c) The woman has an atonic uterus
d) The woman is ready to expel the cord bloods
Answer. The woman is about to deliver the placenta
49. The client is in the third stage of labor. Which of the following assessments should the nurse make/observe for?
a) Fetal heart assessment after each contraction
b) Uterus rising in the abdomen and feeling globular – Calkin’s Sign
c) Rapid cervical dilatation to ten centimeters
d) Maternal complaints of intense rectal pressure
Answer. Uterus rising in the abdomen and feeling globular – Calkin’s Sign
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50. A client is in the first hour of her recovery after a vaginal birth. During an assessment, the lochia is moderate to heavy. bright red, and is trickling from the vagina. The nurse located the fundus at the umbilicus: it is firm and midline, with no palpable bladder. The client’s vital signs remain at their baseline. Based on the information, the nurse would implement which of the following actions?
a) Increase IV rate
b) Recheck the admission hematocrit and hemoglobin levels
c) Report the findings to the HCP
d) Document the findings as normal
Answer. Report the findings to the HCP
51. The nurse is caring for a G 3 P3 woman who is 1 day postpartum following a vaginal birth. Which of the following indicates a need for further assessment?
a) Hemoglobin 12.1 g/dl
b) WBC count of 10,000
c) Pulse of 60
d) Temperature of 100.8 F (38.2″C)
Answer. Temperature of 100.8 F (38.2″C)
52. The nurse is providing follow-up with clients 1 week after the birth of their neonate. The nurse would anticipate what outcomes from this new mother?
a) The client feels tired but is able to care for herself and her new infant.
b) The family has adequate support from one another and others
c) Lochia is changing from red to pink and smaller in amount.
d) The client feeds the baby every 6 to 8 hours without difficulty
e) The client has positive comments about her new infant
a) All but 3
b) All but 4
c) All but 1
d) All but 5
Answer. All but 4
53. A client gave birth vaginally 2 hours ago and has a third-degree laceration. There is ice in place on her perineum. However, her perineum is slightly edematous, and the client is having pain rated 6 on a scale of 1 to 10. Which nursing intervention would be the most appropriate at this time?
a) Begin sitz bath x – Heat = after 240
b) Administer pain medication as ordered
c) Replace ice packs to the perineum
d) Initiate anesthetic sprays to the perineum
Answer. Replace ice packs to the perineum
54. A primigravid client gave birth vaginally 2 hours ago with no complications. As the nurse plans care for this postpartum client, which postpartum goal would have the highest priority?
a) By discharge, the family will bond with the neonate.
b) The client will demonstrate self-care and infant care by the end of the shift.
c) The client will state instructions for discharge during the first postpartum day
d) By the end of the shift, the client will describe a safe home environment
Answer. The client will demonstrate self-care and infant care by the end of the shift.
55. In response to the nurse’s question about how she is feeling, a postpartum client states that she is fine. She then begins talking to the baby, checking the diaper, and asking infant care questions. The nurse determines the client is in which postpartal phase of psychological adaptation
a) Taking in
b) Taking hold
c) Taking on
d) Letting go
Answer. Taking hold
56. At a postpartum checkup 11 days after childbirth, the nurse asks the client about the color of her lochia. Which of the following colors is expected
a) Dark red
b) Pink
c) Brown
d) White alba
Answer. White alba
57. A primaparous client who gave birth vaginally 8 hours ago desires to take a shower. The nurse anticipates remaining near the client to assess for which of the following?
a) Fatigue
b) Fainting
c) Diuresis
d) Hygiene needs
Answer. Fainting Answers to the NCM 109 Maternal Concept 2 Exam Questions.
58. During a home visit on the fourth postpartum day, a primapirous client tells the nurse that she is aware of a “let-down sensation” in her breasts and asks what causes it. The nurse explains that this is stimulated by which of the following?
milk
a) Adrenalin
b) Estrogen
c) Prolactin
d) Oxytocin
Answer. Oxytocin
59. The nurse is assessing a client at her postpartum check-up 6 weeks after a vaginal birth. The mother is bottle feeding her baby. Which client finding indicates a problem at this time?
a) Firm, fundus at the symphisis
b) White, thick vaginal discharge
c) Striae that are silver in color
d) Soft breasts without milk
Answer. Firm, fundus at the symphysis
60. Alyssa is a 33-year-old primigravida who has come to the hospital because she experienced bright red vaginal bleeding. She’s at 35 weeks gestation. Her clinic chart indicates that she was diagnosed with placenta previa 3 weeks earlier. Immediately after delivery the nurse would expect to assess Ms. Alyssa’s fundus to be:
a) Deviated to the right
b) One fingerbreadth above the level of the umbilicus
c) Firm and contracted at the umbilicus
d) Four fingerbreadths above the umbilicus and slightly deviated to the left
Answer. Firm and contracted at the umbilicus
61. Susan, a gravida 1 para 1001, has vaginally delivered a full-term infant without complications. After the first postpartum day, she tells the postpartum nurse that she’s afraid that something is wrong because she’s perspiring and urinating more than normal. Her temperature is 100.0F (37.80C). The nurse should appropriately reply:
a) You’re probably responding to an infection in your body; I’ll call the doctor and report your symptoms.
b) Your temperature is slightly elevated. You could have an infection. I’ll call the doctor to report your temperature.
c) It’s common to perspire and urinate a lot after childbirth; your body is getting rid of the excess fluid that was used in pregnancy.
Answer. It’s common to perspire and urinate a lot after childbirth; your body is getting rid of the excess fluid that was used in pregnancy.
62. During a childbirth preparation class, the nurse explains that in the post-partum period, the process whereby the uterus shrinks to its pre pregnancy state is called:
a) Involution
b) Puerperaum
c) Uterine atony
d) Lochia rubra
Answer. Involution
63. Before assessing the position of the postpartum woman’s uterine Fundus, the nurse should:
a) Ask the patient to drink fluid to fill her bladder
b) Position the head of bed at 45 degrees
c) Ask her to empty her bladder
d) Ask her to refrain from drinking fluids for 30 minutes before the assessment
Answer. Ask her to empty her bladder
64. It’s now 24 hours since the delivery. In accordance with the normal involution process, the nurse should locate Mrs. Sharon’s fundus in which of the following positions?
a) Midline, 1 cm above the umbilicus
b) Midline, 1 cm below the umbilicus
c) Donated to the right, 2 cm above the umbilicus
d) Midline, 3 cm below the umbilicus
Answer. Midline, 1 cm below the umbilicus
65. A 6-week-old infant grasps a rattle placed in the hand. The mother is impressed with this skill. The nurse should explain that this is:
a) A typical behavior and further evaluations is required
b) The palmar grasp reflex and is expected at this age
c) Voluntary behavior usually observed in an older infant
d) The prince grasp, which should disappear in 3 to 4 months of age
-6 weeks old is 1 %, months – palmar grasp is still present, it disappears at 3 months
-Pincer grasp appears at 9-10 moths
Answer. The palmar grasp reflex and is expected at this age
66. The nurse is aware that the play of a 5-month-old infant would probably consist of:
a) Picking up a toy and putting it into the mouth
b) Waving the fists and dropping toys placed in the hands
c) Exploratory searching when an object is hidden from view
d) Simultaneously kicking the legs while batting the hands in the air Fine motor development
e) Picking up a toy and putting it into the mouth
f) Waving the fists and dropping toys placed in the hands Exploratory searching when an object is hidden from view Simultaneously kicking the legs while batting the hands in the air Fine motor development
Answer. Picking up a toy and putting it into the mouth
67. A mother tells the nurse that her 7-months-old infant has just started sitting without support. The nurse should inform the mother that this:
a) Is an expected development behavior at this age
b) Activity signifies the upper 10% of physical development
c) Could be a developmental delay that requires further evaluation
d) Behavior indicates that the infant will be walking within 2 months Gross motor
Answer. Is an expected development behavior at this age
68. The nurse counsels a mother of an 10-month-old infant to be sure the floors are free of small objects when her child is crawling. The rationale for this instruction is that:
a) A 10-month-old infant can easily pick up small objects
b) Sharp objects can injure the fragile skin of a 10-month-old
c) It is a health hazard for infants to pick things up off the floor
d) The infant could hide small objects, making them difficult to locate Pincer grasp is evident at this time
Answer. A 10-month-old infant can easily pick up small objects
69. After teaching a mother about the appropriate play for an 8-month-old infant, the nurse is aware that the mother needs additional teaching when the mother states that she will buy a) Stuffed animal
b) Play telephone
c) Hanging mobile
d) Book with textures
Answer. Play telephone, Play telephone has cord which is hazardous to the infant Answers to the NCM 109 Maternal Concept 2 Exam Questions.
70. The nurse’s developmental assessment of 1 9-month-old infant is expected to reveal:
a) Closure of both fontanels – closes at 12-18 months
b) A two-or three-word vocabulary
c) Self-feeding with a baby spoon
d) The ability to sit steadily without support
Answer. The ability to sit steadily without support
71. A mother brings her 9-month-old infant to the clinic. The nurse is familiar with the mother’s culture and knows that “belly binding” is a common practice. While accepting the mother’s cultural practices and still promoting safety for the infant, the nurse should discourage the use of:
a) Binders that encircle the waist
b) Adhesive tape across the umbilicus
c) A coin to prevent extrusion of the umbilicus – can cause infection
d) Binders because they do not prevent umbilical hernias
Answer. A coin to prevent extrusion of the umbilicus – can cause infection
72. While caring for a 6-month-old infant, it is likely that the nurse will observe the presence of the reflex called:
a) Startle
b) Babinski
c) Extrusion
d) Tonic Neck
Answer. Babinski
73. An infant who weighed 7.5 pounds at birth now weighs 15 pounds at 1 year. The nurse at the pediatric clinic recognizes that this infant:
a) Has probably been neglected
b) Is the expected weight at 1 year of age
c) Is not being offered adequate nourishment
d) Should be three times the birth weight at 1 year
Answer. Should be three times the birth weight at 1 year
74. When planning nursing care for a 1-year-old infant, the nurse should assess abilities in relation to the developmental level. The nurse should expect a 1-year-old to be able to:
a) Jump with both feet
b) Attempt standing alone
c) Communicate in simple sentences
d) Build a tower consisting of several blocks
Answer. Attempt standing alone
75. Mrs. Zexy Lucero, 25 years old, G1P0 on her 27th weeks of gestation with a history of rheumatic heart disease since childhood is concerned about the birth of her baby and asks what to expect. What should Nurse Zasha explain about the birth? (SATA)
a) Labor may be induced
b) Regional anesthesia may be administered
c) Birth may be mid forceps assisted
d) Birth may be vacuum extraction assisted
e) Inhalation anesthesia may be administered
Answer. Regional anesthesia may be administered and Birth may be vacuum extraction assisted
76. Nurse Zasha is imparting instructions to Mrs. Zexy Lucero, 30 years old G1P0, with a history of cardiac disease concerning suitable dietary measures. Which statement, if made by Mrs. Zexy indicates a need for further instructions provided by Nurse Zasha? (SATA)
a) I should increase my sodium intake during pregnancy
b) I should maintain a low-calorie diet to prevent any weight gain
c) I should drink adequate fluids and increase my intake of high-fiber foods
d) I should lower my blood volume by limiting my fluids
Answer. I should lower my blood volume by limiting my fluids
77. Mrs. Zexy Lucero, 25 years old, G1P0, in the first trimester of pregnancy arrives at a health care clinic for prenatal check-up. What information should Nurse Zasha include when counseling her about human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) testing? (SATA)
a) Disclosure of risk factors for contracting HIV b. Risks of passing the virus to the fetus
b) Emotional, legal, and medical implications of tests results
c) Requirement that pregnant women are tested for HIV
d) Meaning of positive or negative tests results
Answer. Disclosure of risk factors for contracting HIV b. Risks of passing the virus to the fetus and Emotional, legal, and medical implications of tests results Answers to the NCM 109 Maternal Concept 2 Exam Questions.
78. Astra, a 26-year-old primigravid client visits her obstetrician for her first prenatal visit complaining of severe nausea and frequent vomiting. The physician confirms that she is in the 14th week of pregnancy. The patient admitted was ordered IV fluid infusion at 125 ml/he. The nurse’s primary nursing responsibility would be?
a) Oxygen
b) Frequent rest periods
c) Input and output monitoring
d) Catheterization
Answer. Input and output monitoring
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79. Wilhelmina is a Class B, insulin dependent diabec, and is receiving prenatal care in a high risk obstetric clinic. Her diabetes has been well controlled since her initial diagnosis. The nurse implements a teaching plan for a pregnant client who was diagnosed with diabete mellitus. The nurse understands that the diabetic mother’s metabolism is significantly altered during pregnancy as a result of:
a) The increased effect of insulin during pregnancy
b) The lower renal threshold of glucose
c) The effect of hormones produced in pregnancy on carbohydrate and lipid metabolism
d) An increase in the glucose tolerance level of the blood
Answer. The effect of hormones produced in pregnancy on carbohydrate and lipid metabolism
80. A 28-year-old primigravida comes to your clinic on her 30th week of gestation complaining of chest pain. On examination she was seen to have cardiomegaly which strengthened the diagnosis of heart disease in pregnancy. The nurse would advise the client if the patient is without any obstetrical indication, she will deliver by:
a) Outlet forceps extraction under epidural anesthesia
b) Cesarean section under general anesthesia
c) Normal spontaneous delivery under pudendal block
d) Cesarean section under epidural anesthesia
Answer. Cesarean section under epidural anesthesia
81. Jodi Yna, a 19-year-old, primigravida, at 34 weeks gestation comes in for severe headache and visual blurring. On prenatal check-up 1 week prior, her BP was noted to be 130/85 mmHg from her usual 110/70. On examination, BP was now at 160/110 mmHg, FHT 140/min., no contractions after 10 minutes of observation. Cervix was 1cm, 30% effaced, intact membranes, station -2. What is the most likely type of hypertensive disorder in pregnancy?
a) Chronic hypertension with superimposed preeclampsia
b) Mild preeclampsia
c) Severe preeclampsia
d) Chronic Hypertension
Answer. Chronic Hypertension
82. Ellisse, a 23-year-old G1 at 35 weeks age of gestation comes in for severe headache and visual blurring. Previous blood pressure on prior prenatal checkup at 14 week was at 140/90 mmHg. Presently, her blood pressure was 170/110 mmHg. She presented with bipedal edema. There were no uterine contractions. Then she developed generalized tonic-clonic seizures last for 40 secs. What is the most likely type of hypertensive disorder in pregnancy?
a) Eclampsia
b) Chronic hypertension with superimposed hypertension
c) Chronic hypertension
d) Severe pre-eclampsia
Answer. Eclampsia
83. The nurse conducts a prenatal class on high risk factors during pregnancy. Several participants in the prenatal class complain of frequent urination. The nurse correctly explains to the group that the most commonly assessed findings in pyelonephritis are which of the following?
a) Dehydration, hypertension, dysuria, suprepubic pain, chills and fever
b) Frequency, urgency, hematuria, nausea, chills and flank pain
c) High fever, chills, flank pain, nausea, vomiting, dysuria and frequency
d) Nocturia, frequency, urgency dysuria, hematuria, fever, and suprapubic pain
Answer. High fever, chills, flank pain, nausea, vomiting, dysuria and frequency
84. Klarissa, a 19-year-old primigravida at 34 weeks age of gestation is seen in the obstetric Unit. She has blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg. Proteinuria of 4 gm/day with elevated liver enzymes. What is the most likely type of hypertensive disorder in pregnancy?
a) Gestational hypertension
b) Chronic hypertension
c) Preeclampsia mild
d) Preeclampsia severe
Answer. Preeclampsia severe
85. Marissa, a 17-year-old primigravid registers at 16 weeks’ gestation has BP of 150/100 mmHg with no other signs and symptoms. Her pre pregnancy BP was 130-140/80-90 mmHg controlled by intake of a calcium channel blocker. Urinalysis is negative for proteinuria. The nurse correctly identifies that this is what type of hypertensive disorder in pregnancy?
a) Chronic hypertension with superimposed preeclampsia
b) Chronic hypertension
c) Preeclampsia
d) Gestational hypertension
Answer. Gestational hypertension
86. A G1P0 PU 32 weeks was brought to the ER because of severe headache and blurring of vision. BP was 170/110 mmHg. Fundal height was 30 cm, FB in the left, FHT 157/m,in. There was also grade II bipedal edema, edema of hands and face. The nurse should correctly identify that which of the following should be done first?
a) Give Hydralazine
b) Administer Diazepam IV
c) Do immediate CS
d) Load MgSO4
Answer. Give Hydralazine
87. A 29 years old female, married, G1P0 AOG 16 weeks complained of vague abdominal wall pain for 3 days. With slight fever and urgency. She took Paracetamol 500 mg and there was temporary relieved of symptoms. A few minutes [prior to consultation, she noticed blood-tinged urine. Husband is an overseas worker (Seaman). What is the probable clinical impression in consultation.
a) Acute pyelonephritis complicated
b) Acute urethritis syndrome
c) Acute pyelonephritis uncomplicated
d) Acute cystitis, hemorrhagic
Answer. Acute cystitis, hemorrhagic
88. A client who has just learned she is pregnant tells the nurse that she smokes two packs of cigarettes a day. In counseling, the nurse encourages her to stop smoking because studies show that newborns of mothers who smoke are often:
a) Post mature with meconium aspiration syndrome
b) Excessively large for gestational age
c) Small for gestational age
d) Born with congenital facial malformations
Answer. Small for gestational age
89. A 42-year-old G2P1 at her 32 weeks’ gestation with known renal disease and hypertension present with BP of 220/120 mmHg but is asymptomatic. The diagnostic test that the nurse will perform to detect chronicity of her illness is:
a) Elevated serum creatinine
b) Urine protein
c) Doppler velocimetry
d) Fundoscopy
Answer. Elevated serum creatinine
90. A 32 weeks patient is admitted to the maternity unit with severe preeclampsia. While her vital signs are being checked by the nurse, she goes into convulsion. Which nursing action would be contraindicated in caring for the patient during an episode of convulsive eclampsia?
a) Firmly, restraining the client to prevent injury
b) Having side rails up and padded
c) Not leaving the client
d) Keeping air passages clear of secretions
Answer. Firmly, restraining the client to prevent injury
91. Gloria, a 27-year-old G1P0, on her 20th week gestation was known to be HIV positive one year prior to this pregnancy. On prenatal checkup the nurse should emphasize which of the following about the prevention of vertical (mother to infant) transmission of HIV infection to the patient?
a) Antiretroviral therapy and cesarean section
b) Antiretroviral therapy
c) Cesarean delivery
d) Antiretroviral therapy and vaginal delivery
Answer. Antiretroviral therapy
92. A 32-year-old P1P0 diabetic patient unsure of the date of her LM sought her first prenatal check-up. She says that she missed three menses, but her fundus is palpated slightly below the level of umbilicus. The physician requested for ultrasonography to estimate the gestational age. Family history is positive for the DM (father). When should the nurse advise the client to have her GCT checked?
a) At term
b) 28-32 weeks
c) 24-28 weeks
d) 32-36 weeks
Answer. 24-28 weeks
93. Mrs. Zexy Lucero, 25 years old, G1P0, 35 weeks age of gestation is admitted to the birthing suite with a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, 3+ proteinuria, and edema of the hands and face. She was diagnosed as Pregnancy Uterine 35 weeks AOG, G1P0 Severe Preeclampsia. What other clinical findings by Nurse Zasha support this diagnosis? (SATA)
a) Constipation
b) Abdominal Pain
c) Vaginal bleeding
d) Visual disturbances e. Headaches
Answer. Abdominal Pain and Visual disturbances e. Headaches
94. Mrs. Zexy Lucero, 25 years old, G1P0, in the first trimester of pregnancy arrives at a health care clinic for prenatal check-up. WHat information should Nurse Zasha include when counseling her about HIV testing? (SATA)
a) Risks of passing the virus to the fetus
b) Disclosure of risk factors for contracting HIV
c) Emotional, legal, and medical implications of test results
d) Requirement that pregnant woman are tested for HIV
e) Meaning of positive or negative test result.
Answer. Risks of passing the virus to the fetus, Disclosure of risk factors for contracting HIV and Emotional, legal, and medical implications of test results
95. Mrs. Zexy Lucero, 30 years old, G1P0, 6 weeks by LMP presents at the lying in clinic for prenatal for prenatal check-up. History revealed a Type 1 diabetes since 14 years of age, history of diabetic nephropathy and proliferative retinopathy and is bothered about the effects on her baby. Which of the following statements about diabetes in pregnancy needs further instructions?
a) The risk of fetal chromosomal abnormalities is increased.
b) Diabetes ketoacidosis is a common complication during the first trimester.
c) Glycosylated hemoglobin levels are poor predictors of the risk of congenital malformations.
d) Proteinuria over 300 mg/dL is associated with increased risk of preeclampsia
Answer. The risk of fetal chromosomal abnormalities is increased and Proteinuria over 300 mg/dL is associated with increased risk of preeclampsia
96. Mrs. Zexy Lucero, 30 years old, G1P0, 28 weeks AOG with Type 1 diabetes is being assessed by Nurse Zasha about her understanding regarding changing insulin needs during pregnancy. Type 1Nurse Zasha determines that the following statements are accurate and signify that Mrs. Zexy understands control of her diabetes during pregnancy?
a) My insulin needs should return to normal within 7 to 10 days after birth if I am bottle feeding
b) My insulin dose will likely need to be increased during the second and third trimesters
c) Episodes of hyperglycemia are more likely to occur during the first 3 month of pregnancy
d) I will need to increase my insulin dosage during the first 3 months of pregnancy” f.
Answer. My insulin dose will likely need to be increased during the second and third trimesters and Episodes of hyperglycemia are more likely to occur during the first 3 month of pregnancy
97. Nurse Nora is monitoring a 28 year old client G1P0, 26 weeks AOG who is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia and is assessing the client every 30 minutes. Which of the following findings would indicate a need to immediately report the findings?
a) Urinary output of 20 mL
b) Respirations of 10 breaths/minute
c) Fetal heart rate of 120 beats/min
d) Deep tendon reflexes of +2
Answer. Urinary output of 20 mL
98. Delilah, a 25 year old woman, is four month pregnant. She had rheumatic fever at age 15 and developed a systolic murmur. She reports exertional dyspnea. The client has been instructed on home management. Which instruction should the nurse give her?
a) Carry on all your usual activities, but learn to work at a slower pace
b) Get someone to do your housework, and stay in bed or in a wheelchair
c) Try to keep as active as possible, but eliminate any activity that you find tiring
d) Avoid heavy housework, shopping, stair climbing, and all unnecessary physical effort
Answer. Avoid heavy housework, shopping, stair climbing, and all unnecessary physical effort
99. Sandra, a 30-year-old, primigravida consulted the Obstetrical Unit for prenatal visit. She complains of abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She was diagnosed as G1P0 pregnancy uterine 28 weeks AOG, Gestational Hypertension. Which of the following assessment should the nurse perform first?
a) Assess strength of contractions
b) Assess fetal heart tones
c) Assess serum electrolytes
d) Assess urinary output
Answer. Assess fetal heart tones
100. A 30-year-old G3P2 at 24 weeks AOG complained of urinary frequency, dysuria, urgency, fever, chills, and costovertebral angle tenderness. Urinalysis showed pyuria and bacteriuria. The nurse would formulate a nursing plan based on which of the following most probable diagnosis?
a) Cystitis
b) Asymptomatic Bacteriuria
c) Acute pyelonephritis
d) Urethritis
Answer. Acute pyelonephritis
101. Cherry Pie, a pregnant client in her 38 weeks’ gestation has been admitted to the hospital. Her initial admitting vital signs are blood pressure 160/90; pulse 88; respirations 24 and temperature 98 F. The client complains of epigastric pain and headache. What should the nurse do INITIALLY?
a) Contact the doctor STAT with findings
b) Provide supportive care for impending convulsions
c) Give Maalox 30 cc now
d) Insert and indwelling catheter
Answer. Give Maalox 30 cc now
102. The nurse is conducting a clinic visit with a prenatal client with heart disease. On assessment the patient presents with palpitations, difficulty of breathing and easy fatigability. The nurse carefully evaluates vital signs, weight gain, and fluid and nutritional status to detect complications. Which of the following rationale of the nurse regarding the patient’s condition needs no further questioning?
a) Rh incompatibility
b) Hypertrophy and increased contractility
c) The increase in circulating volume
d) Fetal cardiomegaly
Answer. Fetal cardiomegaly Answers to the NCM 109 Maternal Concept 2 Exam Questions.
103. The client is in her last trimester of pregnancy and her diabetes has been well controlled. She tells the nurse that she is excited but also scared that something could be wrong with her baby because of her diabetes. Which response of the nurse is most appropriate?
a) Your baby may be small but otherwise healthy
b) Your baby may be large and initially will need blood glucose monitoring
c) Your baby will have a minor birth defect
d) Your baby will be diabetic
Answer. Your baby may be large and initially will need blood glucose monitoring
104. Mrs. Cortez, 32 years old primigravida at 34 weeks AOG is admitted in the Obstetrical Unit because of preterm labor. The Physician ordered magnesium sulfate deep IM. While the client is receiving magnesium sulfate, the nurse routinely assesses the client’s vital signs and notes the following: BP 160/90, and blurring of vision. In caring for the client the nurse should:
a) Maintain her in a supine position
b) Encourage her to drink clear fluids
c) Protect her against strenuous stimuli
d) Isolate her in a dark room
Answer. Encourage her to drink clear fluids
105. Bettina, 24-year-old G1P0 at 40 weeks’ gestation is admitted to the lying-in-clinic IE findings; 2-3 cm cervical dilatation; 80% effaced; station -1; breech presentation; + BOW. 62. Bettina expresses concern about the method of delivery she will undergo considering the status of the fetus. Which of the following methods will the nurse anticipate most likely?
a) Cesarean Section
b) Normal spontaneous delivery
c) Breech Extraction
d) Low Outlet forceps
Answer. Breech Extraction
106. A 35-year-old G1P0 had an infertility work-up from which she was prescribed clomiphene citrate. She got pregnant and was diagnosed to have twin pregnancy. What is the most probable type of twinning?
a) Dizygotic
b) Locked
c) Monozygotic
d) Conjoined
Answer. Dizygotic
107. The nurse clinical instructor is Outlet for supervising nursing students monitoring a laboring client in the Obstetrical Unit. During the discussion of abnormalities of labor, which of the following divisions/phase of labor is most sensitive to analgesia and maternal sedation?
a) Preparatory Division
b) Deceleration Phase
c) Dilatational Division
d) Pelvic Division
Answer. Pelvic Division
108. A G3P2 patient had a cesarean delivery because of previous myomectomy. In the ER she was 3-4 cms, breech presentation, with contractions every 4-7 minutes. The nurse would instruct that the best management for this patient is which of the following?
a) Send her home but advise to return with regular contractions
b) Have her prepared for an emergency cesarean delivery
c) Start oxytocin to improve contractions
d) Await vaginal delivery
Answer. Have her prepared for an emergency cesarean delivery
109. A 20-year-old, primigravid, PU 39 weeks, presented at the ER in labor for 3 hours. PE revealed multiple vesicular lesions in the vulva and perineal area. IE showed 3 cm cervical dilation, 50% effaced, (+) BOW,cephalic, station – 1. Clinical pelvimetry was adequate. The nurse would advise the patient that the best route of delivery is which of the following?
a) Vacuum extraction
b) Outlet forceps extraction
c) Cesarean section
d) Spontaneous vaginal delivery
Answer. Cesarean section
110. Maya dela Cuesta is a primigravida admitted to the labor unit at 40 weeks gestation. Vaginal exams revealed that her cervix is 8 cm dilated, 80% effaced, and the presenting part is at zero station, membranes intact. During a vaginal examination of Maya, the nurse palpates the fetal head and a large diamond-shaped fontanel. The nurse correctly interprets this which type of fetal presentation?
a. Brow presentation
b. Face Presentation
c. Vertex presentation
d. Transverse lie
Answer. Vertex presentation
111. A 30-year-old G1PO, term was admitted for labor pains. FH- 34 cm, FHT- 140 bpm. IE- cervix is 4 cm dilated, 60% effaced, cephalic, station -2, rupture BOW. Uterine contractions every 2-3 mins, moderate. After 2 hours, IEcervix 4-5 cm dilated, 70 % effaced, station – 2. After 2 hours, IE- cervix is 5-6 cm dilated, 80% effaced, station -1. The nurse would correctly describe the progress of labor as which of the following?
a) Normally progressing
b) Protracted cervical dilatation
c) Arrest in cervical dilatation
d) Protracted descent
e) Arrest in descent
Answer. Protracted descent
112. The nurse would adequately and correctly identify that the fetal heart tones can be best heard in which of the following area?
a) LLQ
b) LUQ
c) RLQ
d) RUQ
Answer. RUQ
113. A G5P4 pregnant uterine 39 weeks was in active labor for 3 hours. IE showed cervix 7 cms dilated, fetal head at station – 1 to 0. Suddenly, fetal heart rate decelerated and maternal blood pressure dropped from 120/80 to 90/60 mm Hg. On doing IE, the presenting part appeared to retract. The nurse would identify which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
a) Uterine atony
b) Abruption placenta
c) Acute cord torsion
d) Spontaneous uterine rupture
Answer. Uterine atony
114. A 4 ft 11 in Southeast Asian woman has an estimated fetal weight by ultrasound of 4,000 g. To estimate the pelvic capacity, you perform clinical pelvimetry. The nurse estimate that the pelvic outlet is adequate, but there may be a problem in the midpelvis. The interspinous diameter of a normal pelvis should be at least how many centimeters?
a) 09-11
b) 5
c) 12
d) 6-8
Answer. 09-11. The interspinous diameter is not a clinically important assessment
115. The nurse is asked to consult on a 26-year-old woman (gravida 2, para 1) with a prior cesarean section because of breech positioning. She is at term. The nurse is examining a term patient in the labor and delivery (L&D) suite. Which of the following signs and symptoms is most likely to indicate ruptured membranes?
a) Ferning on a specimen from the vaginal pool
b) Vaginal pool pH of 6.5
c) Yellow-green color on nitrazine test
d) Copious leakage on pants or underwear
e) Superficial squamous cells in the vaginal pool
Answer. Copious leakage on pants or underwear
116. A 30-year-old methamphetamine user presents to L&D in active labor. She has had no prenatal care, but says she is 9 % months. The nurse check fetal position and feel face and nose. The nurse are concerned, because the most common associated condition with a face presentation is which of the following?
a) Hydrocephalus
b) Prematurity
c) Anencephaly
d) Oligohydramnios
e) Placenta previa
Answer. Hydrocephalus and Anencephaly
117. Nurse Zasha is reviewing the Obstetrician-Gynecologists orders for Mrs. Zexy Lucero, 25 years old, G1P0, 37 weeks AOG admitted for watery vaginal discharge before the onset of regular uterine contractions. Internal examination revealed: cervix 3-4 cm dilated, 50% effaced, cephalic, station -1, with pooling of fluid in the vaginal canal on speculum examination. Which of the following activities are expected to be written in the doctor’s orders and to be performed by Nurse Zasha? (Select all that apply)
a) Monitor fetal heart rate continuously
b) Administer an antibiotic per order and hospital protocol
c) Perform cesarean section immediately
d) Monitor maternal vital signs frequently
e) Perform vaginal examination every shift
Answer. Monitor fetal heart rate continuously, administer an antibiotic per order and hospital protocol and Monitor maternal vital signs frequently
118. Mrs. Zexy Lucero, 25 years old, G1P0, 39 4/7 weeks age of gestation is in labor. Internal examination revealed: cervix 5-6 cms dilated, 50% effaced, cephalic, Station 0, (+) BOW. External fetal monitoring revealed a variable decelerations. Nurse Zasha is preparing for cesarean birth. Which of the following activities should not be implemented without clarification by Nurse Zasha? (Select all that apply)
a) Continue the oxytocin drip if infusing.
b) Place the client in a high Fowler’s position
c) Slow the intravenous flow rate.
d) Administer oxygen, 8 to 10 L/minute, via face mask
Answer. Continue the oxytocin drip if infusing and Slow the intravenous flow rate.
119. Nurse Zasha is monitoring Mrs. Zexy Lucero, G1P0, who is at 6 cms cervical dilatation, 80% effaced, (+)BOW, Station ( who is experiencing labor dysfunction. Nurse Zasha concludes that which risk factors in Mrs. Zexy’s history categorized her at risk for this complication? (Select all that apply).
a) Administration of oxytocin for labor induction
b) Body mass index of 28
c) Age 54 years
d) Previous difficulty with infertility
e) Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
Answer. Body mass index of 28, Age 54 years and Previous difficulty with infertility. Answers to the NCM 109 Maternal Concept 2 Exam Questions.